Village Agriculture Assistance Question Paper 2020

Village Agriculture Assistance Question Paper 2020

Previous Year Question Paper 2020

PART-A

Q1. Who is the father of Plant Pathology in India ?

• (1) E.J. Butler
• (2) K.C. Mehta
• (3) B.B. Mundakur
• (4) R. Prasad

Answer

Q2. Which genus of nematodes has special types of nurse cell systems which serve as source of continuous supply of nutrients to the nematodes?

• (1) Meloidogune
• (2) Heterodera
• (3) Globodera
• (4) All of these

Answer

Q3. In which of the following diseases of plant chlorophyll of the leaves get destroyed and leaves get shrinked?

• (1) Mosaic disease of tobacco
• (2) Citrus canker
• (3) Tundu disease of wheat
• (4) Rhizoctonia

Answer

Q4. In which disease of plant stem rot at soil line with brown to red lesions ?

• (1) Rhizoctonia
• (2) Angular leaf spot
• (3) Bacterial blight
• (4) Bacterial spot

Answer

Q5. Fungi and Bacteria usually enters through?

• (1) Stomata
• (2) Wounds
• (3) Hydathodes
• (4) Insect puntyre

Answer

Q6. Seed coat peroxidase test is used for?

• (1) Sorghum
• (2) Wheat
• (3) Soybean
• (4) Groundnut

Answer

Q7. Seed is a?

• (1) Immature embryo
• (2) Mature embryo
• (3) Developed embryo
• (4) Undeveloped embryo

Answer

Q8. All are dicotyledonous seeds except

• (1) Mango
• (2) Castor
• (3) Rice
• (4) Pea

Answer

Q9. A gas required for germination of pea seed is?

• (1) Nitrogen
• (2) Oxygen
• (3) Hydrogen
• (4) Water vapours

Answer

Q10. The fermented or distilled product of crops are used in?

• (1) Diesel engines
• (2) Petrol engines
• (3) Industries
• (4) Machines

Answer

Q11. The main mode of extension in the ‘farmers first’ model is?

• (1) Farmer to farmer
• (2) Agent to farmer
• (3) Research to agent
• (4) Farmer to science

Answer

Q12. The largest plant cells are?

• (1) Xylem vessel cell
• (2) Parenchyma cells
• (3) Sieve tube cells
• (4) Sclerenchyma fibers

Answer

Q13. Who determines the minimum support price in India ?

• (1) The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
• (2) The Agriculture Ministry
• (3) The Finance Commission
• (4) NABARD

Answer

Q14. Which of the following is not a kharif crop ?

• (1) Mustard
• (2) Jowar
• (3) Paddy
• (4) Soybean

Answer

Q15. Which of the following is a stimulant crop ?

• (1) Wheat
• (2) Maize
• (3) Arhar
• (4) Tea

Answer

Q16. The main function of cultivator is?

• (1) To turn the soil
• (2) To make furrow in soil
• (3) To pulverize the soil
• (4) All above three functions

Answer

Q17. Function of the seed-drill is?

• (1) Making furrow
• (2) Dropping seeds
• (3) Covering the seeds in furrow
• (4) All of the above

Answer

Q18. Which crop requires water-logging for its cultivation ?

• (1) Tea
• (2) Coffee
• (3) Rice
• (4) Mustard

Answer

Q19. Primary resource for agriculture?

• (1) Land, air and water
• (2) Seed, fertilizer and pesticide
• (3) Seed, air and water
• (4) Land, fertilizer and water

Answer

Q20. Climate pertains to a?

• (1) Long period of time
• (2) Short duration
• (3) Medium duration
• (4) None

Answer

Q21. The practice of growing two or more different types of crops in the same field at the same time is called?

• (1) Crop rotation
• (2) Monoculture
• (3) Mixed cropping
• (4) Field fallow

Answer

Q22. Stomata, present on the leaves are surrounded by?

• (1) Chlorophyll
• (2) Guard cells
• (3) Pores
• (4) Tubes

Answer

Q23. Allowing the field to remain vacant for one full season is called?

• (1) Crop rotation
• (2) Multiple cropping
• (3) Field fallow
• (4) Monoculture

Answer

Q24. Which is the best method to prevent soil erosion?

• (1) Deforestation
• (2) Afforestation
• (3) Heavy rainfall
• (4) Waterlogging

Answer

Q25. Fruits which develop only from ovary after fertilization are called?

• (1) Apomictic fruits
• (2) True fruits
• (3) Parthenocarpic fruits
• (4) False fruits

Answer

Q26. Which among the following is not a cereal?

• (1) Rice
• (2) Wheat
• (3) Gram
• (4) Maize

Answer

Q27. Where in India is irrigation done by Tanks?

• (1) Karnataka
• (2) Tamil Nadu
• (3) Andhra Pradesh
• (4) All of the above

Answer

Q28. Which one of the following is not a part of the green revolution strategy?

• (1) High yielding varieties of seeds
• (2) Fertilizer
• (3) Irrigation
• (4) Crop insurance

Answer

Q29. The technique that reduce the amount of water consumption in crop cultivation?

• (1) Hydroponics
• (2) Automated irrigation
• (3) Macro-irrigation
• (4) Micro-irrigation

Answer

Q30. Consider the following crops, which of these are Kharif crops ?

1. Cotton
2. Groundnut
3. Rice
4. Wheat

• (1) A and D
• (2) B and C only
• (3) A, B and C
• (4) B, C and D

Answer

Q31. In India, cyclone is tracked through which satellite?

• (1) INSAT
• (2) IRS
• (3) Ocean SAT
• (4) None of the above

Answer

Q32. Percentage of drought prone area in the India is?

• (1) 8%
• (2) 30%
• (3) 15%
• (4) None of the above

Answer

Q33. The cycle of disaster consists of the following components?

• (1) Mitigation, preparedness, response, recovery
• (2) Preparedness, vulnerability assessment, risk assessment, recovery
• (3) Mitigation, risk assessment, response and recovery
• (4) None of the above

Answer

Q34. One of the main reasons for farmers commit suicide in India is?

• (1) Crop failure
• (2) Earthquake
• (3) Tsunami
• (4) All of the above

Answer

Q35. What is called for the manuals that identify the role of each officer in State for managing the natural disasters ?

• (1) State Relief Manuals
• (2) State Environmental Protection Manuals
• (3) State Disaster Manuals
• (4) State Protection Manuals

Answer

Q36. A pair of bullock develops power equivalent to?

• (1) 0.5 hp
• (2) 1.0 hp
• (3) 1.5 hp
• (4) 2.0 hp

Answer

Q37. Grassed waterways are used as?

• (1) Diversion channels
• (2) Outlets
• (3) Inlet to terrace system
• (4) All are correct

Answer

Q38. Before the Advent of machinery, farmers used ____ to help in farming.?

• (1) Solar Energy
• (2) Astrology
• (3) Wind Pressure
• (4) Domesticated Animals

Answer

Q39. Which of the following factors is/are important in determining erosion potential ?

• (1) Seasonal distribution of rainfall
• (2) Structural stability of the soil
• (3) Vegetation cover
• (4) All of the above

Answer

Q40. Which of the following make a soil more susceptible to wind erosion ?

• (1) High surface roughness
• (2) Standing stubble from harvested crop
• (3) High clay content
• (4) Low water content

Answer

Q41. The removal of weeds by ploughing is called?

• (1) Mulching
• (2) Fallowing
• (3) Tilling
• (4) Contour farming

Answer

Q42. One of the following crops is the most effective in controlling soil erosion?

• (1) Maize
• (2) Cotton
• (3) Green gram
• (4) Pigeon pea

Answer

Q43. Rotation of crop is essential for?

• (1) Increasing fertility of soil
• (2) Increasing quality of protein
• (3) Increasing quality of minerals
• (4) Getting different kinds of crops

Answer

Q44. Material deposited by flowing water is called?

• (1) Alluvium
• (2) Alluvival Fans
• (3) Albedo
• (4) None of these

Answer

Q45. Degraded zone includes the area with heavy soil erosion?

• (1) Acacia modest
• (2) Capparis aphylla
• (3) Salvadora oleoides
• (4) All of the above

Answer

Q46. Which type of parasite witch weed is?

• (1) Semi-root parasite
• (2) Semi-stem parasite
• (3) Root parasite
• (4) Stem parasite

Answer

Q47. Pseudomonas putida is a bacteria which is known as?

• (1) Plant pathogen
• (2) Soil bacterium
• (3) Plant growth prompting bacteria
• (4) None of the above

Answer

Q48. Rice blast is caused by?

• (1) Bacteria
• (2) Fungus
• (3) Virus
• (4) Mycoplasma

Answer

Q49. The major storage fungi that effects the food grain is?

• (1) Rhizobium
• (2) Mucor
• (3) Cercospora
• (4) Aspergillus

Answer

Q50. Loose smut of barley is/are?

• (1) Internally seed borne
• (2) Externally seed borne
• (3) Soil borne
• (4) All of these

Answer

Q51. Seedlessness in fruits is called as?

• (1) Parthenogenesis
• (2) Parthenocarpy
• (3) Apomixis
• (4) None

Answer

Q52. Middle layer of fruit wall is called?

• (1) Mesocarp
• (2) Mericarp
• (3) Meristem
• (4) Microbyle

Answer

Q53. Hot water treatment is used to break dormancy in?

• (1) Lentil
• (2) Cherry
• (3) Cotton
• (4) None

Answer

Q54. Mode of pollination in maize is?

• (1) Self-pollination
• (2) Vegetative propagation
• (3) Cross-pollination
• (4) None

Answer

Q55. When the pathogen is loosely mixed with seed in the form of sclerotia, galls etc. are called?

• (1) Infection
• (2) Infestation
• (3) Contamination
• (4) Concomitant contamination

Answer

Q56. Bio-fuels are obtained from?

• (1) Vegetable oilor fermented products of crops
• (2) Biomass
• (3) From Renewable energy
• (4) Plant waste

Answer

Q57. The scientific study of soil is?

• (1) Pedology
• (2) Earth Study
• (3) Soil Science
• (4) Soil Chemistry

Answer

Q58. Groundnut pegs when developed in the soil from?

• (1) Fruits
• (2) Roots
• (3) Stems
• (4) Tubers

Answer

Q59. White colour of soil is due to the presence of?

• (1) Manganese oxide
• (2) Silica
• (3) Iron
• (4) All of these

Answer

Q60. Soil fertility is reduced due to?

• (1) Poor drainage
• (2) Over irrigation
• (3) Continuous cropping
• (4) Imbalanced use of fertilizers

Answer

Q61. Under the All India Coordinated Vegetable Improvement Project (AICVIP), India is divided into agroclimatic zones?

• (1) 8
• (2) 12
• (3) 18
• (4) 24

Answer

Q62. Which of the following is the controlling centre of a cell?

• (1) Chloroplast
• (2) Nucleus
• (3) Nucleolus
• (4) Mitochondria

Answer

Q63. The parent material transported by gravity is called?

• (1) Lacustrine
• (2) Colluvium
• (3) Alluvium
• (4) None of the above

Answer

Q64. Combination of crop production and milk production activities is an example of?

• (1) Competitive
• (2) Complementary
• (3) Supplementry
• (4) None of the above

Answer

Q65. Diversified farming is?

• (1) Type of farming
• (2) System of farming
• (3) Both (1) and (2)
• (4) None of the above

Answer

Q66. The deficiency of which of the following causes poor plant growth and pale green or yellow leaves?

• (1) Potassium
• (2) Phosphorus
• (3) Nitrogen
• (4) Sulphur

Answer

Q67. Khaira disease of Rice crop is due to the deficiency of?

• (1) Ca
• (2) Zn
• (3) Fe
• (4) Cu

Answer

Q68. “Solanika” is an early maturing variety of?

• (1) Rice
• (2) Wheat
• (3) Maize
• (4) Millet

Answer

Q69. “White rust” is an important fungal disease of?

• (1) Wheat
• (2) Maize
• (3) Mustard
• (4) Cotton

Answer

Q70. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements?

A: A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.

B: Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.

C: Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

• (1) A and B only
• (2) C only
• (3) A and C only
• (4) A, B and C

Answer

Q71. The branchy part of the tree seen above the stem is called?

• (1) Canopy
• (2) Cover
• (3) Crown
• (4) Trunk

Answer

Q72. Which of the following crops would be preferred for sowing in order to enrich the soil with nitrogen?

• (1) Wheat
• (2) Mustard
• (3) Sunflower
• (4) Gram

Answer

Q73. To which group does the black cotton soil of India belong?

• (1) Laterite
• (2) Podzol
• (3) Chernozem
• (4) Sierozem

Answer

Q74. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is?

• (1) of no use to plants
• (2) injurious to plants
• (3) directly utilized by plants
• (4) utilized through micro-organisms

Answer

Q75. Besides Rabi and Kharif, which is the third crop season in India ?

• (1) Zaid
• (2) Barsati
• (3) Sharad
• (4) Jhum

Answer

Q76. Blind hoeing is recommended for?

• (1) Wheat
• (2) Maize
• (3) Groundnut
• (4) Sugarcane

Answer

Q77. Gynodioecious varieties of papaya produce

• (1) Only male plants
• (2) Female and hermaphrodite plants
• (3) Only female plants
• (4) Male and hermaphrodite plants

Answer

Q78. Plant micronutrient is?

• (1) Carbon
• (2) Boron
• (3) Magnesium
• (4) Sulphur

Answer

Q79. A crop grown in zaid season is?

• (1) Soybean
• (2) Watermelon
• (3) Jute
• (4) Maize

Answer

Q80. Classification of insects and rules of their nomenclature comes under the branch?

• (1) Morphology
• (2) Taxonomy
• (3) Ecology
• (4) Physiology

Answer

Q81. Which is post-harvest disease of potato?

• (1) Black leg
• (2) Sclerotium rot
• (3) Late blight
• (4) All of the above

Answer

Q83. Main objective of vegetable blanching is?

• (1) Inactivation of bacteria
• (2) Inactivation of enzymes
• (3) Fixation of color
• (4) Removal of tissue gas

Answer

Q84. Criteria for harvesting of citrus fruits is based on?

• (1) Color
• (2) Iodine
• (3) Percentage of oil
• (4) Sugar and acid ratio

Answer

Q85. Floods can be prevented by?

• (1) Afforestation
• (2) Cutting the forest
• (3) Tilling the land
• (4) Removing the top soil

Answer

Q86. In tractor transmission oil and oil from the steering worm and sector housing should be changed after how many working hrs ?

• (1) 45
• (2) 550
• (3) 650
• (4) 750

Answer

Q87. Which of the following types of internal combustion engine is generally used as portable engine for pumping and electricity generation ?

• (1) Spark ignition
• (2) Stationary
• (3) Vertical single cylinder
• (4) All of these

Answer

Q88. Which one of the following is not a secondary tillage tool ?

• (1) Disc Plough
• (2) Disc Harrow
• (3) Mould Board
• (4) None of these

Answer

Q89. Vertical section of plough influences?

• (1) Pulverization
• (2) Depth of cut
• (3) Width of cut
• (4) Direction of pull

Answer

Q90. The average force that a bullock can exert?

• (1) 1/5th of their body weight
• (2) 1/10th of their body weight
• (3) 1/20th of their body weight
• (4) 1/25th of their body weight

Answer

Q91. The major cause for land degradation in our country is?

• (1) Soil erosion
• (2) Pollution of soil
• (3) Water – logging
• (4) None of the above

Answer

Q92. Deforestation generally decreases?

• (1) Rainfall
• (2) Soil erosion
• (3) Drought
• (4) Global warming

Answer

Q93. Dark coloured soils are considered most fertile as they contain?

• (1) Gravel and sand
• (2) Sand and calcium
• (3) Clay and humus
• (4) Silt and earthworms

Answer

Q94. The chief cause of accelerated erosion is?

• (1) Excessive rains
• (2) Wind storms
• (3) Overfilling and overgrazing
• (4) All of these

Answer

Q95. When young plants are grazed too heavily, they get killed because?

• (1) The roots are starved
• (2) Of the mechanical injury to roots
• (3) Most of the aerial parts are eaten away
• (4) All of the above

Answer

Q96. What is the pH value of normal rain ?

• (1) 1
• (2) 5.6
• (3) 8
• (4) 7

Answer

Q97. The most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes is?

• (1) Air pollution
• (2) Contamination of groundwater
• (3) Increased use of land for landfills
• (4) None of these

Answer

Q98. What is called for the method of removing dust and other particles from water using filters?

• (1) Filtration
• (2) Sublimation
• (3) Rainwater harvesting
• (4) Evaporation

Answer

Q99. Each anther has how many pollen sacs ?

• (1) Four
• (2) One
• (3) Two
• (4) Three

Answer

Q100. What is called for an area surrounding a body of water in which that body of water is subject to?

• (1) Rainwater harvesting
• (2) Watershed
• (3) Water pumping
• (4) Water cycle

Answer

Village Agriculture Assistance Question Paper 2020

PART B

Q101. The construction of a dam across the river Tungabhadra and diverting the waters of the river into the city of Vijayanagara is regarded as one of the most remarkable irrigation works in South India. Who constructed this dam?

• (1) Bukka-I and Devaraya-I
• (2) Harihara-II and Kumara Kampana
• (3) Harihara-I and Marappa
• (4) Bukkaraya-I and Harihara–II

Answer

Q102. Road Transport in Andhra Pradesh is traced to the efforts of the Nizam of Hyderabad in 1932. After the end of the Nizam’s rule, it was named as Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation (APSRTC) in the year?

• (1) 1950
• (2) 1958
• (3) 1947
• (4) 1956

Answer

Q103. The cases involving an interpretation of the Constitution fall within which of the following jurisdictions of the Supreme Court ?

• (1) Original Jurisdiction
• (2) Advisory Jurisdiction
• (3) Appellate Jurisdiction
• (4) None of the above

Answer

Q104. According to the Constitution, the contingency fund of the State is placed at the disposal of the?

• (1) Governor
• (2) State Finance Minister
• (3) Chief Minister
• (4) State Legislature

Answer

Q105. The Fundamental Rights of a Citizen can be suspended?

• (1) By the Parliament through a law enacted by two-thirds majority
• (2) By the President during a national emergency
• (3) By the Supreme Court
• (4) None of the above

Answer

Q106. Which of the following disease can be transmitted from one person to another through vectors?

• (1) Chikungunya
• (2) Hepatitis B
• (3) HIV-AIDS
• (4) Goitre

Answer

Q107. Which of the following is a threat for electronic payment systems?

• (1) Computer Virus
• (2) Computer Worms
• (3) Trojan Horses
• (4) All of the above

Answer

Q108. Which among the following is not an application of the INSAT system?

• (1) Telemedicine
• (2) Disaster management
• (3) Astronomy
• (4) Meteorology

Answer

Q109. Which of the following missile systems has the longest range ?

• (1) Pritvi – III
• (2) Agni – VI
• (3) Barak – I
• (4) Nirbhay

Answer

Q110. Which of the following is not an application of LASER ?

• (1) LASIK
• (2) LIDAR
• (3) Holography
• (4) MRI

Answer

Q111. Andhra Pradesh is a land of many rivers and is popularly called as a “Riverine State”. Out of the rivers given below, which of the following are interstate rivers with Telangana ?

1. Pennar
2. Budameru
3. Errakalava
4. Tammileru

• (1) A and B
• (2) A, B and C
• (3) B, C and D
• (4) A, B, C and D

Answer

Q112. Which of the following are the Health Schemes implemented by the Dr. YSR Aarogyasri Health Care Trust?

1. Dr. YSR Aarogyasri for below the poverty line families
2. 104 Seva Kendram
3. Ayushman Bharat

• (1) A only
• (2) A and B
• (3) B and C
• (4) A, B and C

Answer

Q113. Recently, India has shown interest to ratify Cape Town Agreement (CTA) adopted by the International Maritime Organization (IMO). The agreement is related to?

• (1) Safety of fishing vessels
• (2) Anti-maritime piracy
• (3) Securing International Trade routes
• (4) Cargo Ships

Answer

Q114. As per the provisions of the Code on Wages, 2019 which of the following is not included in the wages paid to a labour?

• (1) Basic Pay
• (2) Overtime Allowance
• (3) Dearness Allowance
• (4) Retaining Allowance

Answer

Q115. In the context of COVID -19, flattening the curve would mean?

• (1) Determining the number of new infections caused by one infected individual
• (2) Health conditions which arise out of compromised immune
• (3) Giving special attention to prevent the disease among the old and vulnerable
• (4) Reducing the number of new cases day on day so that the health infrastructure is not strained

Answer

Directions (Q. No. 116 – 118): Refer to the graph and answer the given questions. The number of projects handled by two companies (M and N) from 2016 to 2020

Q116. Out of the total number of projects handled by company M in 2018 and 2019 together, 20% were Governmental projects. What was the total number of governmental projects handled by company M in 2018 and 2019 together?

• (1) 135
• (2) 215
• (3) 118
• (4) 122

Answer

Q117. Number of projects handled by company N decreased by what percent from 2017 to 2019?

• (1) 25%
• (2) 32%
• (3) 50%
• (4) None of these

Answer

Q118. If the number of projects handled by company ‘M’ increases by 30% from 2020 to 2021 and by 10% from 2021 to 2022, what will be the number of projects handled by company M in 2022?

• (1) 487
• (2) 429
• (3) 356
• (4) None of these

Answer

Directions (Q. No. 119-120) : Study the following information and answer the given questions. Eight children A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H have different heights, not necessarily in the same order. C is the tallest child. H is taller than only F. E is shorter than only four children. A is taller than E but shorter than G. Dis taller than E. Gis taller than D.

Q119. How many children are taller than B?

• (1) Four
• (2) Three
• (3) Five
• (4) None of these

Answer

Q120. Which one of the following is the third shortest?

• (1) B
• (2) E
• (3) H
• (4) D

Answer

Q121. Which of the following pairs of Kingdoms and their capital are incorrectly matched ?

• (1) Pandya Kingdom : Madhurai
• (2) Chera Kingdom: Kaveripattanam
• (3) Chola Kingdom: Uraiyur
• (4) All of the above

Answer

Q122. In the context of the administration of Delhi Sultanate, ‘Diwan-i-Arz’ refers to which of the following departments?

• (1) Military department
• (2) Ecclesiastical department
• (3) Correspondence department
• (4) Finance department

Answer

Q123. The Brihadeswara temple at Thanjavur was built by the?

• (1) Chalukyas
• (2) Cholas
• (3) Pallavas
• (4) Pandyas

Answer

Q124. The journal “Deen Bandhu” in Marathi was published by?

• (1) Mahatma Gandhi
• (2) Jyotiba Phule
• (3) Shahu Maharaj
• (4) E. V. Ramaswami Naicker

Answer

Q125. The Swadeshi Movement took place in India during?

• (1) The Champaran Satyagraha of
• (2) The Anti-Bengal partition agitation
• (3) The protest against the Rowlatt Act
• (4) The Non-Cooperation Movement

Answer

Q126. Which of the following ports of Andhra Pradesh are classified as ‘Captive Ports’?

1. Narsapur Port
2. Ramayapatnam Port
3. Meghavaram Port
4. Nakkapalli Port

• (1) A and B
• (2) B and C
• (3) C and D
• (4) B and D

Answer

Q127. The Kakinada – Srikakulam Natural Gas Pipeline Project is being executed by?

• (1) AP Gas Infrastructure Corporation
• (2) AP Gas Distribution Corporation
• (3) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited
• (4) Natural Gas Transmission Company

Answer

Q128. The Government of Andhra Pradesh has proposed to develop a new Greenfield International Airport at Bhogapuram Mandal of Vijayanagaram District. This airport is being developed by?

• (1) Airports Authority of India
• (2) Bhogapuram Airport Corporation Limited
• (3) Andhra Pradesh Airports Development Corporation Limited
• (4) Megha Engineering and Infrastructure Limited

Answer

Q129. Ministry of Labour and Employment is not implementing which of the following Schemes ?

• (1) Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY)
• (2) Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Maan-Dhan Yojana
• (3) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Urban Livelihoods Mission
• (4) National Child Labour Project

Answer

Q130. Recently the Central Government launched Jeevan Kaushal. Jeevan Kaushal is

• (1) A curriculum for life skills
• (2) Guidelines for Healthy Living
• (3) Balanced diet for Mid-day-meal Scheme
• (4) Creating green spaces in Urban areas

Answer

Q131. 1/6 × 7440 – 4/5 × ? = 560.

• (1) 850
• (2) 740
• (3) 560
• (4) 780

Answer

Q132. Find the missing number in the following number series?

12, 13, 16, ___, 28, 39.

• (1) 18
• (2) 24
• (3) 21
• (4) 19

Answer

Q133. The difference between 42% of a number and 24% of the same number is 378. What is 65% of that number?

• (1) 1465
• (2) 1560
• (3) 1450
• (4) 1365

Answer

Q134. The average age of mother and her daughter is 18 years. The ratio of their ages is 5:1. What is the daughter’s age after 5 years ?

• (1) 12 years
• (2) 13 years
• (3) 11 years
• (4) 15 years

Answer

Q135. A person in a car travels at the speed of 76 km/hr and reaches his destination in 5 hours. In order to cover the same distance by bike in 4 hours, at what speed he has to travel ?

• (1) 85 km/hr
• (2) 80 km/hr
• (3) 95 km/hr
• (4) 90 km/hr

Answer

Q136. The salaries and allowances of the members of the Council of Ministers in a State are determined by?

• (1) The State Legislature
• (2) The Governor in consultation with the President
• (3) The Parliament
• (4) The President

Answer

Q137. Who of the following laid the foundation stone for the Visakhapatnam Steel Plant?

• (1) Justice A. N. Ray
• (2) Indira Gandhi
• (3) B. D. Jatti
• (4) V. V. Giri

Answer

Q138. Tirumala Tirupati Devasthanams (TTD) is the official custodian of hill temple of Lord Venkateswara. The TTD was established as a result of the TTD Act in the year?

• (1) 1932
• (2) 1950
• (3) 1956
• (4) 1952

Answer

Q139. “The first task of this Assembly is to free India through a new Constitution, to feed the starving people and to cloth the naked masses and to give every Indian the fullest opportunity to develop himself according to his capacity.” This quotation was given by?

• (1) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
• (2) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
• (3) Dr. S. Radha Krishnan
• (4) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Answer

Q140. The first Right to Food Legislation was drafted in which of the following States?

• (1) Chhattisgarh
• (2) Tamil Nadu
• (3) Orissa
• (4) Jharkhand

Answer

Directions (Q. No. 141-142): Read these information/statement given in each question carefully and answer the questions.

Q141. Which of the following expressions will not be true if the expression ‘P>_Q=R>S is definitely true?

• (1) Q<_P
• (2) R<_P
• (3) S>P
• (4) Q>S

Answer

Q142. In which of the following expressions will the expression ‘F<_R’ be definitely true ?

• (1) F<Q<_G<R
• (2) R>_Q<G>_F
• (3) R>_G=Q>_F
• (4) F=Q<_G<R

Answer

Q143. The question given below has a sentence with a part of the sentence underlined. Four alternatives for the underlined part are given. One of them is correct.

Identify the correct one.

The master tested the new boy to see if he can read English

• (1) To see if he can be able to read English
• (2) To see if he will read English
• (3) To see if he could read English
• (4) To see if he can read English

Answer

Q144. Read the paragraph given below. Earning of profits, is, no doubt, the main aim of any business. But if they are earned with principles they enrich people’s life. As the Jagadguru Sankaracharya says “all for each and each for all” should be the motto of an enlightened men.

In the context of the above paragraph the sentence “All for each and each for all” means

• (1) All of us should be having business as our motto
• (2) Each of us should be concerned for highest profit
• (3) All businessmen should run business for their own benefit
• (4) Everyone in the country should look for the benefit of all the others

Answer

Q145. The question given below has a sentence with a part of the sentence underlined. Four alternatives for the underlined part are given. One of them is correct.

Identify the correct one.

They have been working hard and so hardly they need any assistance from us.

• (1) have been working hardly and so hardly they need
• (2) hardly have been working and so hardly they need
• (3) have been working hard and so they hardly need
• (4) have been working hardly and so hardly do they need

Answer

Q146. Social Mobility is an important element of any society. Which of the following are true regarding the characteristics of Social Mobility ?

1. Transition of an individual or social object from one position to another.
2. These positions can be either higher or lower in the system.
3. This positional movement has to be recognized by the general consent of the society.
4. This movement can be from one social group to another at the same level.

• (1) A and B
• (2) A, B and C
• (3) B, C and D
• (4) A, B, C and D

Answer

Q147. Which of the following would be the appropriate explanation of ‘Varna and Jati’ in Indian society?

• (1) Varna refers to a vertical hierarchical system and Jati refers to a horizontal hierarchical system
• (2) Jati is an all India classification of hindus on the basis of colour and Varna refers to various castes and sub-castes which have local variation
• (3) Jati refers to a vertical hierarchical system and Varna refers to a horizontal hierarchical system
• (4) Varna is an all India classification of hindus on the basis of colour and Jati refers to various castes and sub-castes which have local variation

Answer

Q148. Which among the following areas in India receives the least rainfall ?

• (1) Ladakh
• (2) Eastern Ghats
• (3) Eastern Rajasthan
• (4) Western Tamil Nadu

Answer

Q149. Which among the following is not true regarding Alluvial Soils ?

• (1) They are rich in nitrogen
• (2) They are poor in humus
• (3) They are highly fertile
• (4) They are easy to plough

Answer

Q150. The rocks in the Himalayan system are primarily characterised as?

• (1) Sedimentary
• (2) Igneous
• (3) Plutonic
• (4) Dyke

Answer

Village Agriculture Assistance Question Paper 2020

VAA 2019	Click
More Previous Paper	Click
Online Test Series	Click