JNKVV & RVSKVV Phd Plant Breeding Entrance Exam 2024 with pdf

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JNKVV & RVSKVV Phd Plant Breeding Entrance Exam 2024

JNKVV & RVSKVV Phd Plant Breeding Entrance Exam 2024

JNKVV & RVSKVV Phd Plant Breeding Entrance Exam 2024

Q.1 The expression of character of a distant ancestor in an organism is called?

  1. Atavism
  2. Translocation
  3. Reversion
  4. Heredity
    Answer:- Atavism

Q.2 Genetic assortative mating is useful in the development of which of the following?

  1. Inbred lines
  2. Composites
  3. Synthetics
  4. Hybrids
    Answer:- Inbred lines

Q.3 Which of the following produces pseudodominance?

  1. Deletion
  2. Inversion
  3. Duplication
  4. Translocation
    Answer:- Deletion

Q.4 Isolation distance for certified seed in sorghum varieties is?

  1. 3 meters
  2. 10 meters
  3. 200 meters
  4. 100 meters
    Answer:- 100 meters

Q.5 The phenomenon in which the progeny of an aneuploid plant would become aneuploid for different chromosomes as compared to its parent is called?

  1. Quadrivalent shift
  2. Bivalent shift
  3. Divalent shift
  4. Univalent shift
    Answer:- Univalent shift

Q.6 Which is the crop that originated in Peru and Brazil but is now mainly grown in India?

  1. Groundnut
  2. Potato
  3. Maize
  4. Red Pepper
    Answer:- Groundnut

Q.7 The ratio of number of short reads with mutant allele at a SNP locus to total number of short reads covering SNP locus is called?

  1. SNP index
  2. SNP calling
  3. SNP mining
  4. SNP validation
    Answer:- SNP index

Q.8 A recessive bud mutation is most likely to be expressed in which of the following?

  1. A clone
  2. A pureline
  3. An inbred
  4. A synthetics
    Answer:- A clone

Q.9 Which of the following was not a cause for Mendel’s lack of instant popularity?

  1. Darwin’s theory of natural selection
  2. His experimental model being rare
  3. His ideas of using statistics being beyond his time
  4. His article was published in less known journal
    Answer:- His experimental model being rare

Q.10 The maximum area could be registered for seed certification is?

  1. 20 acres
  2. 25 acres
  3. 15 acres
  4. 10 acres
    Answer:- 25 acres

Q.11 Recombined triticales are obtained by crossing?

  1. Primary 6x triticales with 8x triticales / 6x wheat
  2. Intercrossing between primary 6x triticales
  3. Hexaploids of wheat
  4. Diploids of rye
    Answer:- Intercrossing between primary 6x triticales

Q.12 Which of the following insect resistance is due to plasmagenes?

  1. Gall midge (rice)
  2. Pea aphid (alfalfa)
  3. Root aphid (lettuce)
  4. Stem sawfly (wheat)
    Answer:- Root aphid (lettuce)

Q.13 Identify the meiotic products and chromatid constitution of paracentric inversions?

  1. No bridge; chromatids with duplication + deficiency
  2. Bridge + acentric fragment; chromatids with duplication + deficiency
  3. No bridge; chromatids with translocations
  4. Dicentric bridge; chromatids with deficiency
    Answer:- No bridge; chromatids with duplication + deficiency

Q.14 Which of the following crops is the most sensitive to salt stress?

  1. Alfalfa
  2. Sugarbeet
  3. Beans
  4. Maize
    Answer:- Maize

Q.15 The genes controlling 7 traits in pea studied by Mendel were later found to be located on how many chromosomes?

  1. 7
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
    Answer:- 4

Q.16 The seed quality concept was given by?

  1. Harrington
  2. Thompson
  3. Hartman
  4. Kestar
    Answer:- Thompson

Q.17 Which of the following is the most sensitive to water stress?

  1. Cell expansion
  2. Respiration
  3. Photosynthate translocation
  4. Photosynthesis
    Answer:- Cell expansion

Q.18 For pure DNA, the ratio of absorbance at 260nm to that of 280nm should be?

  1. 0.8 to 1.0
  2. 1.0 to 1.5
  3. 1.8 to 2.0
  1. 0
    Answer:- 1.8 to 2.0

Q.19 In a population in which inbreeding takes place, the AA in a generation will be which of the following, when F represents the inbreeding coefficient?

  1. P² + pqf
  2. P² − pqf
  3. P²(pqf)
  4. P²(1-f)
    Answer:- P² + pqf

Q.20 Genes of different species that perform the same function are called?

  • Orthologous genes
  • Paralogous genes
  • Duplicate genes
  • Analogous genes
    Answer:- Orthologous genes

 

Q.21 se Q.100 tak sab questions same format me,

  • Question ke end me ?
  • Options 1, 2, 3, 4 numbering
  • Content bilkul same

Group A (Continued)[/bg_collapse]

Q.21 If a restriction site is 6 nucleotides long, what are the chances of finding it in a vector?

  1. Once every 46 base pairs
  2. Once every 64 base pairs
  3. Once every 16 base pairs
  4. Once every 24 base pairs
    Answer:- Once every 46 base pairs

Q.22 Hairy peduncle (Hp) in rye is associated with which of the following?

  1. Fe-efficiency
  2. B-efficiency
  3. Mn-efficiency
  4. Cu-efficiency
    Answer:- Cu-efficiency

Q.23 What is the molarity of urea used in sequencing gels?

  1. 1M
  2. 3M
  3. 5M
  4. 7M
    Answer:- 7M

Q.24 Superior seedling growth at 0°C was introgressed into tomato from which of the following?

  1. Lycopersicum cheesmanii
  2. L. pimpinellifolium
  3. L. hirsutum
  4. L. peruvianam
    Answer:- L. hirsutum

Q.25 Which of the following is not a feature of crop ideotype?

  1. Species non-specificity
  2. Location non-specificity
  3. Population-density independence
  4. Poor competitive ability
    Answer:- Population-density independence

Q.26 Hybrid varieties utilized?

  1. GCA component of heterosis
  2. SCA component of heterosis
  3. Both GCA and SCA
  4. Midparent
    Answer:- Both GCA and SCA

Q.27 The leguminous crop with well developed endosperm?

  1. Soybean
  2. Ricebean
  3. Fenugreek
  4. Chickpea
    Answer:- Fenugreek

Q.28 Operons are found in which of the following?

  1. E. coli
  2. Yeast
  3. Drosophila
  4. E. coli and yeast
    Answer:- E. coli and yeast

Q.29 On a Vr – Wr graph, when the regression line passes below the origin cutting Vr – Wr indicates?

  1. Partial dominance
  2. Complete dominance
  3. Over dominance
  4. No dominance
    Answer:- Over dominance

Q.30 What is congression?

  1. Attachment of microtubule to chromosome
  2. Attachment of two sister chromatids
  3. The endpoint of the spindle pole
  4. The midpoint of two spindle poles
    Answer:- The midpoint of two spindle poles

Q.31 A systematic one-dimensional search for one QTL at a time treating each marker interval independent of other intervals is?

  1. Composite interval mapping
  2. Simple interval mapping
  3. Multiple interval mapping
  4. Single marker analysis
    Answer:- Simple interval mapping

Q.32 In DNA/RNA sequencing, deduction of bases on the basis of light color and intensity signals is called?

  1. Bin mapping
  2. Barcoding
  3. Base calling
  4. Bayes factor
    Answer:- Base calling

Q.33 According to endosperm balance number (EBN) hypothesis, normal endosperm development occurs if?

  1. Paternal:Maternal EBN ratio is 1:2
  2. Maternal:Paternal EBN ratio is 1:2
  3. Paternal:Maternal EBN ratio is 3:1
  4. Maternal:Paternal EBN ratio is 1:3
    Answer:- Paternal:Maternal EBN ratio is 1:2

Q.34 The number of tiers involved in seed multiplication in India is?

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. Four
    Answer:- Three

Q.35 A dice is thrown twice. What is the probability of getting two numbers whose product is even?

  1. 1/3
  2. 3/5
  3. 5/4
  4. 3/4
    Answer:- 3/4

Q.36 In Alfalfa protein quality has been enhanced by transferring?

  1. Ovalbumin gene from chicken
  2. Serum albumin gene from human
  3. Arabidopsis thaliana
  4. Gluten gene from wheat
    Answer:- Ovalbumin gene from chicken

Q.37 The capacity of a genotype towards a genetic change is called?

  1. Adaptability
  2. Adaptation
  3. Co-adaptability
  4. Stability
    Answer:- Adaptability

Q.38 The largest number of varieties developed through hybridization between mutants belong to which of the following?

  1. Pulses
  2. Oilseeds
  3. Forage crops
  4. Cereals
    Answer:- Cereals

Q.39 Colchicine application is helpful in polyploidy as it?

  1. Inhibits mitosis
  2. Inhibits formation of centromere
  3. Allows replication of DNA twice in one cell cycle
  4. Inhibits formation of mitotic spindle
    Answer:- Inhibits formation of mitotic spindle

Q.40 Down’s syndrome in humans is the result of?

  1. Triploidy
  2. Monosomy
  3. Trisomy
  4. Fusion of X and Y
    Answer:- Trisomy

Q.41 The number of plants to be observed for completing a single count in blackgram and greengram?

  1. 1000
  2. 500
  3. 100
  4. 250
    Answer:- 500

Q.42 The molar ratio of histone proteins in DNA is?

  1. 2H1 : 2H2a : 2H2b : 2H3 : 2H4
  2. 2H1 : 2H2a : 2H2b : 2H3 : 1H4
  3. 1H1 : 2H2a : 2H2b : 2H3 : 1H4
  4. 1H1 : 2H2a : 2H2b : 2H3 : 2H4
    Answer:- 1H1 : 2H2a : 2H2b : 2H3 : 2H4

Q.43 A chimera will be maintained intact by which of the following?

  1. Sexual reproduction
  2. Meristem culture
  3. Somatic embryogenesis
  4. Apomixis
    Answer:- Meristem culture

Q.44 In Haldane mapping function interference would be?

  1. i = 0
  2. i = 1
  3. i = 0
  4. i = 2
    Answer:- i = 0

Q.45 Linkage is the result of?

  1. Formation of more dominant phenotype
  2. Formation of more wild phenotype
  3. Formation of more recombinant phenotype
  4. Formation of more parental phenotype
    Answer:- Formation of more parental phenotype

Q.46 Analysis of oligogenic characters is based on?

  1. Variances
  2. Covariances
  3. Means
  4. Frequencies
    Answer:- Frequencies

Q.47 Univalent shift generally occurs in which of the following?

  1. Trisomic lines
  2. Tetrasomic lines
  3. Nullisomic lines
  4. Monosomic lines
    Answer:- Monosomic lines

Q.48 Peroxidase test is done for cultivar purity analysis in which of the following crops?

  1. Barley
  2. Arhar
  3. Soybean
  4. Lentil
    Answer:- Soybean

Q.49 Covariance among half-sibs is equal to which of the following?

  1. 1/3 VA
  2. 1/8 VA
  3. 1/2 VA
  4. 1/4 VA
    Answer:- 1/4 VA

Q.50 Klenow Fragment is derived from?

  1. DNA Ligase
  2. DNA Pol-I
  3. DNA Pol-II
  4. Reverse transcriptase
    Answer:- DNA Pol-I

 

Q.51 In Generation Mean analysis, three parameters model is based on?

  1. P1, P2, F1, F2, BC1 and BC2
  2. P1, P2, F1 and F2
  3. P1, P2, F1, F2 and BC1
  4. P1, P2, F1, F2 and BC2
    Answer:- P1, P2, F1, F2, BC1 and BC2

Q.52 The best source of aneuploids is which of the following?

  1. Autotriploids
  2. Haploids
  3. Autotetraploids
  4. Translocation heterozygotes
    Answer:- Autotriploids

Q.53 The buffering capacity of a population showing low magnitude of G × E interaction would be?

  1. High
  2. Low
  3. Medium
  4. Zero
    Answer:- High

Q.54 Chromatids coiling in the meiotic and mitotic division is?

  1. Plectonemic in both
  2. Paranemic in both
  3. Paranemic in mitosis and plectonemic in meiosis
  4. Plectonemic in mitosis and paranemic in meiosis
    Answer:- Plectonemic in mitosis and paranemic in meiosis

Q.55 The requirement of minimum pure seed for certification is the lowest in which of the following?

  1. Carrot
  2. Cauliflower
  3. Sesame
  4. Onion
    Answer:- Sesame

Q.56 Which breeding method would be effective when there is preponderance of non-additive gene action?

  1. Progeny selection
  2. Pedigree breeding
  3. Back cross breeding
  4. Heterosis breeding
    Answer:- Heterosis breeding

Q.57 Which of the following promoters is seed-specific?

  1. Vicilin
  2. Extensin
  3. 35S
  4. Adh1
    Answer:- Vicilin

Q.58 Which of the following breeding methods is best suited for development of recombinant inbred lines (RILs)?

  1. Bulk method
  2. Pedigree method
  3. SSD method
  4. Backcross method
    Answer:- SSD method

Q.59 In eukaryotes, the -25 sequence and -75 sequence located on RNA-polymerase II are known as?

  1. Hogness box and CAAT box respectively
  2. Pribnow box and CAAT box respectively
  3. Recognition sequence and Pribnow box respectively
  4. Pribnow box and recognition sequence respectively
    Answer:- Hogness box and CAAT box respectively

Q.60 Autocatalytic splicing is seen in?

  1. Introns of tRNA precursors
  2. Introns of rRNA precursors
  3. Introns of nuclear pre-mRNAs
  4. Non-coding RNAs
    Answer:- Introns of rRNA precursors

Q.61 Which of the following shows codominance as well as multiple alleles?

  1. Sickle cell anemia
  2. Rabbit fur colour
  3. Round seed shape in pea
  4. ABO blood groups
    Answer:- ABO blood groups

Q.62 Which of the following is a hot spot for stem rust of wheat?

  1. Northern plains zone
  2. Central zone
  3. Peninsular zone
  4. Northern hills zone
    Answer:- Peninsular zone

Q.63 Prevention of homeologous pairing in wheat occurs due to?

  1. Ph gene located on long arm of 5B chromosome
  2. Ph gene located on short arm of 5A chromosome
  3. Ph gene located on short arm of 5B chromosome
  4. Ph gene located on long arm of 5D chromosome
    Answer:- Ph gene located on long arm of 5B chromosome

Q.64 The most widely and easily applicable approach for rapid isolation of homozygous lines?

  1. Single Seed Descent
  2. Doubled haploid
  3. Gynogenesis
  4. Bulk method
    Answer:- Single Seed Descent

Q.65 Tandem duplication creates ……. and reverse tandem duplication creates …….?

  1. Buckling, Hairpin respectively
  2. Buckling, Looping respectively
  3. Hairpin, Buckling respectively
  4. Loop with turn, Hairpin respectively
    Answer:- Buckling, Hairpin respectively

Q.66 High heritability with low genetic advance is indicative of?

  1. Additive gene action
  2. Non additive gene action
  3. Dominance gene action
  4. Epistatic gene action
    Answer:- Non additive gene action

Q.67 Any chromosome that is not a sex chromosome?

  1. X chromosome
  2. Y chromosome
  3. Autosomes
  4. Both X and Y chromosome
    Answer:- Autosomes

Q.68 Which of the following is not correct about sporophytic system of self-incompatibility?

  1. There are frequent reciprocal differences
  2. Homozygotes for S allele are a normal part of the system
  3. Stigma surface is plumose
  4. An incompatibility group may contain two genotypes
    Answer:- Stigma surface is plumose

Q.69 The PPVFR Authority (PPVFRA) began registration of plant varieties in which year?

  1. 2005
  2. 2006
  3. 2007
  4. 2008
    Answer:- 2007

Q.70 How many statistical assumptions are to be fulfilled for construction of selection index?

  1. Two
  2. Three
  3. Four
  4. Five
    Answer:- Two

Q.71 Differential multiplication theory of linkage was proposed by?

  1. Bateson
  2. Muller
  3. Correns
  4. Haldane
    Answer:- Bateson

Q.72 The four reaction mixtures generally used in molecular work contained?

  1. dCTP, dTTP, dGTP, dATP
  2. dCTP, ddTTP, dGTP, ddATP
  3. ddCTP, dTTP, ddGTP, dATP
  4. dCTP, ddTTP, dGTP, dATP
    Answer:- dCTP, ddTTP, dGTP, dATP

Q.73 Breeding value is related to?

  1. Additive variance
  2. Dominance variance
  3. Epistatic variance
  4. Environmental variance
    Answer:- Additive variance

Q.74 Diploid parthenogenesis occurs in which of the following?

  1. Hordeum
  2. Cicer
  3. Arachis
  4. Taraxacum
    Answer:- Taraxacum

Q.75 Minimum number of field inspections for certification in Chickpea?

  1. Four
  2. Three
  3. Two
  4. One
    Answer:- Two

Q.76 Male and female groups are generated in which of the following?

  1. NCD III
  2. NCD I
  3. NCD II
  4. Line × tester scheme
    Answer:- NCD I

Q.77 Genomic selection rectifies the deficiency of?

  1. MAS and MARS scheme
  2. MABC scheme
  3. AB QTL analysis
  4. Gene pyramiding
    Answer:- MAS and MARS scheme

Q.78 The probability of breaking undesirable linkage between two genes is more in which breeding method?

  1. Mass selection
  2. Pureline selection
  3. Pedigree method
  4. Backcross method
    Answer:- Backcross method

Q.79 The condition wherein centromeres align on the metaplate and chromosomal arms are present in cytoplasm is called?

  1. Coorientation
  2. Auto-orientation
  3. No orientation
  4. Central orientation
    Answer:- Auto-orientation

Q.80 Formation of bivalents during meiosis is not possible in?

  1. Polyhaploids
  2. Haploids
  3. Diploids
  4. Tetraploids
    Answer:- Haploids

Q.81 Gametic lethality and zygotic lethality are observed in?

  1. Oenothera lamarckiana and O. muricata
  2. muricata and O. lamarckiana
  3. biennis and O. gaura
  4. grandiflora and O. filiformis
    Answer:- O. muricata and O. lamarckiana

Q.82 The value of regression and correlation is the same when correlation between two variables is?

  1. Positive
  2. Negative
  3. Perfect
  4. Imperfect
    Answer:- Perfect

Q.83 Which sequencing method does not use DNA synthesis for sequencing?

  1. 454 sequencing
  2. Solexa
  3. Ion-semiconductor sequencing
  4. Polony method
    Answer:- Polony method

Q.84 The bioinformatic tool that converts submitted protein sequence into nucleotide sequence and compares with nucleotide sequence database is?

  1. tBLASTn
  2. tBLASTx
  3. BLASTp
  4. BLASTn
    Answer:- tBLASTn

Q.85 Primase protein essential for RNA primer synthesis is produced by gene?

  1. dna B
  2. dna C
  3. dna G
  4. dna E
    Answer:- dna G

Q.86 The submitted sample size for conducting Grow out test in maize is?

  1. 100 g
  2. 500 g
  3. 1000 g
  4. 250 g
    Answer:- 1000 g

Q.87 Sunflower and Jerusalem artichoke originated in which centre of origin?

  1. South American centre
  2. Mediterranean centre
  3. Brazil-Paraguay centre
  4. USA centre
    Answer:- USA centre

Q.88 The biochemical test used for identification of varieties is?

  1. Tetrazolium test
  2. Electrophoresis
  3. Southern blot test
  4. Grow out test
    Answer:- Tetrazolium test
    [/bg_collapse]

Q.89 Physical purity and genetic purity of foundation seed is ………… percentage?

  1. 100, 100 respectively
  2. 98, 99 respectively
  3. 96, 98 respectively
  4. 98, 95 respectively
    Answer:- 98, 99 respectively

Q.90 Histone proteins are?

  1. Basic, contain lysine and arginine
  2. Neutral, contain lysine and arginine
  3. Basic, contain leucine and asparagine
  4. Basic, contain lysine and asparagine
    Answer:- Basic, contain lysine and arginine

Q.91 Which of the following provides information for deciding mating order of parents to obtain superior double cross?

  1. Diallel cross
  2. Partial diallel cross
  3. Triallel cross
  4. Quadriallel cross
    Answer:- Triallel cross

Q.92 The maximum heterosis is likely to be manifested in?

  1. Single cross
  2. Double cross
  3. Three way cross
  4. Double topcross
    Answer:- Single cross

Q.93 The National Food Security Mission does not cover which crop?

  1. Rice
  2. Coarse cereals
  3. Pulses
  4. Vegetables
    Answer:- Coarse cereals

Q.94 Density-gradient centrifugation experiments were conducted by?

  1. Avery, McLeod and McCarty
  2. Meselson-Stahl
  3. Watson and Crick
  4. Fraenkel-Conrat and Singer
    Answer:- Meselson-Stahl

Q.95 The Indian Seed Act was passed by the Parliament on?

  1. 2nd October, 1966
  2. 2nd October, 1969
  3. 29th December, 1966
  4. 29th December, 1969
    Answer:- 29th December, 1966

Q.96 The specific activity of ‘transferase’ enzyme is essential for?

  1. Semi-conservative replication of DNA
  2. Rolling circle replication of DNA
  3. Conservative replication of DNA
  4. Supercoiling of DNA
    Answer:- Rolling circle replication of DNA

Q.97 In 1916, East showed that quantitative characters are governed by many genes; he studied inheritance of corolla length in?

  1. Nicotiana tobacum
  2. Nicotiana longiflora
  3. Nicotiana rustica
  4. Nicotiana langsdorfii
    Answer:- Nicotiana longiflora

Q.98 Without linker DNA, the size of nucleosome core would be?

  1. 200 base pairs
  2. 146 base pairs
  3. 250 base pairs
  4. 164 base pairs
    Answer:- 146 base pairs

    Q.99 Which degree of statistics is involved in D² analysis?

    1. First order
    2. Second order
    3. Third order
    4. Fourth order
      Answer:- Third order

Q.100 The credit of introducing seed certification goes to which country?

  1. Canada
  2. India
  3. Denmark
  4. Sweden
    Answer:- Sweden

 

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