Assistant Agriculture Officer (AAO) Paper 2018 Rajasthan

Assistant Agriculture Officer (AAO) Paper 2018 Rajasthan

 

Assistant Agriculture Officer

Pdf in Bottom

Question Paper 2018

1.Which of the following crops show a very high degree of inbreeding depression?

• (1) Sorghum
• (2) Alfa-alfa
• (3) Pearl millet
• (4) Sunflower

Answer

2.Which of the following chemical is used for testing seed viability?

• (1) Tetrazolium chloride
• (2) Ether
• (3) Thiourea
• (4) Benzene

Answer

3.The colour of the tag used to label foundation seed bag is?

• (1) White
• (2) Green
• (3) Blue
• (4) Golden yellow

Answer

4.Maximum heterosis is manifested by?

• (1) Single cross
• (2) Double cross
• (3) Three way cross
• (4) Top cross

Answer

5.Hybrid varieties were first developed in following crop?

• (1) Sorghum
• (2) Maize
• (3) Onion
• (4) Castor

Answer

6.The amphidiploid Brassica Juncea has been evolved through hybridization between?

• (1) Brassica campestris X Brassica napus
• (2) Brassica campestris X Brassica nigra
• (3) Brassica carinata x Brassica nigra
• (4) Brassica nigra x Brassica oleracea

Answer

• 7. Pure-line theory was proposed by?
  (1) John
  (2) Mendel
  (3) Johannsen
  (4) Swaminathan

Answer

8.MPMH17, RHB223, MPMH21. and RHB224 are the recommended hybrids of?

• (1) Sorghum
• (2) Maize
• (3) Cotton
• (4) Bajra

Answer

9.A tall plant is crossed with a dwarf plant. In the progeny, about one half of the plants are tall and remaining one half are dwarf. Determine the genotypes of the tall and dwarf plants.?

• (1) TTxtt
• (2) Tt x Tt
• (3) Ttx tt
• (4) tt x tt

Answer

10.Which one great soil group of the following belongs to order zonal soils?

• (1) Laterite soils
• (2) Alluvial soils
• (3) Saline soils
• (4) Regosols

Answer

11. The height of aircraft for aerial photographic soil survey depends upon?
a. Scale of aerial photography
b. Type of camera
c. Focal length of camera
d. Area of photography
Select the correct answer from above

• (1) a & b
• (2) b & c
• (3) a &c
• (4) c & d

Answer

12. On the basis of International Society of Soil Science (ISSS), which of the following is the size of fine sand ?

• (1) 0.2-0.02 mm
• (2) 0.025-0.05 mm
• (3) 0.002 – 0.0002 mm
• (4) 0.05-0.005 mm

Answer

13. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using codes given below?

List-I	List-II
Soil Orders	Formative Elements in the name of orders
1. Entisols	A, ept
2. Vertisols	B. ent
3. Inceptisols	C. ert
4. Spodosols	D. od

 

Codes	A	B	C	D
(1)	4	1	2	3
(2)	2	3	1	4
(3)	3	1	2	4
(4)	1	3	4	2

Answer

14. Match the Column-1 with Column-2 and choose the correct answer using the codes given below ?

Column-1	Column-2
Nutrients Physiological functions	deficiency symptoms
1. P	i. plays important role in water tolerance
2. K	ii. involved in energy transfer
3. B	iii. deficiency causes KHAIRA disease in rice
4. Zn	iv. plays vital role in pollen germination and pollen tube growth

 

Codes	1	2	3	4
(1)	ii	i	iv	iii
(2)	i	iii	ii	iv
(3)	iii	ii	i	iv
(4)	iv	ii	i	iii

 

Answer

15. Which one statement of the following in reference to soil forming process is false?

• (1) Humification is the process of decomposition of organic matter and synthesis of new organic substance.
• (2) Biosphere is active soil forming factor.
• (3) The podzolization is fundamental soil forming process.
• (4) Parent material is passive soil forming factor.

Answer

16. Which of the followings is not a soil texture class ?

• (1) Sandy
• (2) Loamy sand
• (3) Sandy loam
• (4) Sand

Answer

17. Which one of the followings is an organic chemical fertilizer ?

• (1) Calcium Ammonium Nitrate (CAN)
• (2) Di-Ammonium Phosphate (DAP)
• (3) Urea
• (4) None of these

Answer

18. Which of the following pairs related to nutrient deficiency symptoms is not correctly matched ?

• (1) Ca – Deficiency symptoms appear on terminal bud and it dries with time.
• (2) S- Chlorosis symptoms appear on younger leaves
• (3) Fe – Chlorosis symptoms appear on older leaves
• (4) N – Chlorosis symptoms appear on older leaves

Answer

19. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

• (1) Rock phosphate is a water soluble fertilizer.
• (2) Single super phosphate is a water soluble fertilizer.
• (3) Triple super phosphate is a acid soluble fertilizer.
• (4) Ammonium phosphate is a water soluble fertilizer.

Answer

20. Which of the following is not a mineral horizon ?

• (1) A
• (2) E
• (3) B
• (4) O

Answer

21. Which of the following is a non-edible oil cake ?

• (1) Mustard cake
• (2) Mahua cake
• (3) Linseed cake
• (4) Sesame cake

Answer

22. Clustering disease is a physiological disorder of?

• (1) Grapes
• (2) Mango
• (3) Sapota
• (4) Banana

Answer

23. Which variety of papaya is not a gynodioecious?

• (1) Pusa Dwarf
• (2) Surya
• (3) Pusa Majesty
• (4) Coorg Honeydew

Answer

24. Lalit is a variety of which fruit crop ?

• (1) Grape
• (2) Pomegranate
• (3) Guava
• (4) Lemon

Answer

25. Parent of Arka Kanchan grape are?

• (1) Anab-e-Shahi X Queen of Vineyard
• (2) Black Charmpa x Thompson Seedless
• (3) Bangalore Blue x Black Champa
• (4) Angur Kalan x Black Champa

Answer

26. Which fruit is not peeled before canning ?

• (1) Pineapple
• (2) Mango
• (3) Cherry
• (4) Apple

Answer

• 27. What is optimum seed rate (kg/ha) of carrot ?
• (1) 4-5
• (2) 6-10
• (3) 12-15
• (4) 18-20

Answer

28. Hybrid “T’ roses is commercially propagated by which of the following method?

• (1) Hard wood stem cutting
• (2) “T” budding
• (3) Air layering
• (4) Suckers

Answer

29. In which crop a disease ‘purple blotch is found ?

• (1) Tomato
• (2) Pea
• (3) Cauliflower
• (4) Onion

Answer

30. Ruby is a variety of which crop?

• (1) Bael
• (2) Pomegranate
• (3) Guava
• (4) Amla

Answer

Assistant Agriculture Officer (AAO) Paper 2018 Rajasthan

31. Which species of rose contains maximum amount of essential oil?

• (1) Rosa imultiflora
• (2) Rosa bourbiana
• (3) Rosa damascena
• (4) Rosa chinensis

Answer

32. “Pusa Mukta” is variety of which crops?

• (1) Cauliflower
• (2) Cabbage
• (3) Onion
• (4) Tomato

Answer

33. Damping off disease is common in which fruit crop?

• (1) Papaya
• (2) Mango
• (3) Lime
• (4) Amla

Answer

34 Which one of the following is the peculiarities of Indian Agriculture ?

• (1) Dependence of seasonal rainfall
• (2) Production of cash-crops
• (3) Even distribution of land-holdings
• (4) More capital investment

Answer

35. As per Economic Survey of India 2017-18, what was the level of food grain production in India for the year 2016-17?

• (1) 252.02 million tonnes
• (2) 251.57 million tonnes
• (3) 270.05 million tonnes
• (4) 275.68 million tonnes

Answer

36.According to Agriculture Census 2015-16, what percent of area under land holding has decreased in Rajasthan in the year 2015-16 in comparison to 2010-11 ?

• (1) 1.50 percent
• (2) 1.80 percent
• (3) 1.24 percent
• (4) 2.10 percent

Answer

37. The Minimum Support Price (MSP) of wheat for 2018-19 season has been fixed at?

• (1) 1840 per quintal
• (2) 1745 per quintal
• (3) 1635 per quintal
• (4) 1640 per quintal

Answer

38. Which of the following fact is correct about the contribution of women in Indian agriculture as per Census 2011 ?

• (1) out of total female main workers, 80 percent were agricultural labourers.
• (2) 12.8 percent of the operational holding were owned by women.
• (3) more than 50 percent of the operational holding were owned by women in the marginal and small holdings categories.
• (4) only 20 percent of large holdings were owned by women.

Answer

39. Match List – I (Institutions) with List – II (Established Years) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists?

List-I	List-II
Institutions	Years
a. Food Corporation of India	i. 1958
b. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development	ii.1982
c. National Horticulture Board	iii.1984
d. National Agricultural Co-operative Marketing Federation	iv.1965

 

Codes	1	2	3	4
(1)	i	ii	iii	iv
(2)	iv	ii	iii	i
(3)	ii	iii	iv	i
(4)	iii	iv	i	ii

Answer

 

40. The difference between the price paid by consumer and net price received by producer for an equivalent quantity of farm produce is often known as?

• (1) Marketing cost
• (2) Marketing efficiency
• (3) Price-spread
• (4) Marketing channel

Answer

41. The indirect financing to agriculture are associated with which of the following?

• (1) Loans given for land reclamation
• (2) Loans given for milch cattle
• (3) Loans given for plant protection measures
• (4) Financing the Farmer’s Service Societies (FSS)

Answer

42. The head office of NABARD is situated at?

• (1) Mumbai
• (2) New Delhi
• (3) Jaipur
• (4) Chennai

Answer

43. In which year, Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana was introduced in India ?

• (1) 1985
• (2) 1991
• (3) 2009
• (4) 2016

Answer

44. Under Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana,Government of India provide financial assistance to the states. From 2015-16, Government of India reduced their contribution from?

• (1) 100 percent to 80 percent
• (2) 100 percent to 60 percent
• (3) 80 percent to 60 percent
• (4) 100 percent to 50 percent

Answer

45.From which district of Rajasthan, the National Rural Livelihood Mission was launched by Mrs. Sonia Gandhi on June 3, 2011?

• (1) Udaipur
• (2) Dungarpur
• (3) Bhilwada
• (4) Banswada

Answer

46. The expression of farm plan in monetary terms is called

• (1) Farm Budgeting
• (2) Farm Planning
• (3) Farm Management
• (4) Production Economics

Answer

Agriculture Assistant 

47. Which is not a carpentry tool?

• (1) Bevel square
• (2) Cross pein harmmer
• (3) Dynamometer
• (4) Rasp cut file

Answer

48. MHD devices stands for?

• (1) Magneto hydro dynamic
• (2) Mini harvester device
• (3) Mono hydro diameter
• (4) Micro hydration device

Answer

49. Which one of the following statement is correct ?

• (1) Subsoiler and chisel plough are used to break and satter impermeable soil layers.
• (2) Fluted rollers are important component of puddler,
• (3) Frog is a component of dise harrow.
• (4) Mould board plough is used in sandy soil.

Answer

50. Which is false statement in following?

• (1) Blade terracer is used for land levelling purpose.
• (2) Function of cultipackers is breaking of clods and packing of soil.
• (3) Puddler is used for sowing paddy in field with standing water.
• (4) Ridger is used to form ridges.

Answer

51. A Fore Sight (F.S.) is also called?

• (1) Minus Sight (-S)
• (2) Plus Sight (+S)
• (3) Intermediate Sight (I.S.)
• (4) Turming Point (T.P.)

Answer

52. The vertical distance between the centre line of the pump and the point of free delivery of water is called?

• (1) Static head
• (2) Static suction head
• (3) Static discharge head
• (4) Friction head

Answer

53. Basic formula for calculating the discharge through a weir is?

• (1) Q= CLH^m
• (2) Q= LHⁿ
• (3) Q= CH^m
• (4) Q= CL^m

Answer

54. Which is false statement from the following?

• (1) A chain pump is suitable to lift water to height upto 12 m from the water surface in the well, canal or stream.
• (2) A centrifugal pump will not function until the pump casing is completely filled with water.
• (3) Submersible pumps are suitable for installation in tubewell of diameter 10 cm or larger.
• (4) Total head is sum of static head, friction head and velocity head.

Answer

55. Which is false statement in following ?

• (1) Cost of maintenance of bullocks is very high due to limited use in a year.
• (2) Rate of depreciation of a tractor is 20 percent per year.
• (3) In terms of power output, one can expect 0.3 kW to 0.6 kW per animal.
• (4) On an average a farm worker can develop 0.1 horse power (HP) or 0.075 kW.

Answer

56. How many times protein content ofco lostrum is higher than normal milk?

• (1) 7-9
• (2) 3-5
• (3) 9-11
• (4) 12-14

Answer

57.Which breed of sheep is famous for carpet wool production ?

• (1) Nellore
• (2) Mandya
• (3) Chokla
• (4) Hassan

Answer

58. In India, pashmina wool is obtained from which breed of goat ?

• (1) Barbari
• (2) Black Bengal
• (3) Kutchi
• (4) Changthangi

Answer

59. The gestation period in cows is?

• (1) 230-235 days
• (2) 280-285 days
• (3) 305-310 days
• (4) 315-320 days

Answer

60. How much floor space is satisfactory for an adult cow in shed?

• (1) 15-20 sq. ft.
• (2) 20-25 sq. ft.
• (3) 65-70 sq. ft
• (4) 85-90 sq. ft.

Answer

Assistant Agriculture Officer (AAO) Paper 2018 Rajasthan

61. What is the moisture percent of hay ?

• (1) 15-20%
• (2) 25-30%
• (3) 30-35%
• (4) 35-40%

Answer

62, Foot and mouth disease in cattle and pigs is caused by?

• (1) Virus
• (2) Bacteria
• (3) Fungi
• (4) Flies

Answer

63. Generally for computation of balanced ration for indigenous cattle, the dry matter is calculated at the rate of?

• (1) 1- 1.5 kg/100 kg body weight
• (2) 2-2.5 kg/ 100 kg body weight
• (3) 3-3.5 kg/100 kg body weight
• (4) 4-4.5 kg/100 kg body weight

Answer

64. Rate of milk feeding to cattle calf from birth to 3 weeks of age should be——of calf body weight.

• (1) 10%
• (3) 2.5%
• (2) 1%
• (4) 20%

Answer

65.The buffaloes found in India belongs to which of the following categories ?

• (1) River buffalo
• (2) Swamp buffalo
• (3) Mud buffalo
• (4) Tarai buffalo

Answer

66.Which one of the following sheep breed belongs to North Western arid and semi-arid region of India?

• (1) Ganjam
• (2) Gaddi
• (3) Chokla
• (4) Mandya

Answer

67. The disorder caused by excessive feeding of lush green fodders in cattle is?

• (1) Milk fever
• (2) Ketosis
• (3) Tympanitis
• (4) Azoturia

Answer

68. According to Kelsey and Hearne, the basic philosophy of Extension Education is

• (1) To eradicate poverty of people.
• (2) To provide technical help to people.
• (3) To teach people how to think, not what to think.
• (4) Helping people themselves.

Answer

69.Kisan Mandal System under T & V system was initiated in which year?

• (1) 1992
• (2) 1993
• (3) 1994
• (4) 1996

Answer

70.Which one of the following projects is implemented in consortium mode, with competitive funding in India ?

• (1) National Agricultural Technology Project
• (2) National Agricultural Innovation Project
• (3) Institution-Village-Linkage Programme
• (4) National Agricultural Research Project

Answer

71. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

• (1) Individual contact – Personal letter
• (2) Group contact – Campaign
• (3) Mass contact- Farmers fair
• (4) Group contact – Field trip

Answer

72. First 55 Community Development Projects were organized in India for a period of?

• (1) Three years
• (2) Five years
• (3) Ten years
• (4) Fifteen years

Answer

73. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I	List- II
a. Audio aid	1. Specimen
b. Projected visual aid	2. Drama
c. Non-projected	3. Telephone visual aid
d. Audio-visual aid	4. Slide

 

Codes:	a	b	c	d
(1)	1	2	4	3
(2)	2	1	3	4
(3)	4	3	2	1
(4)	3	4	1	2

Answer

74. Need based and Skill oriented Vocational Training is provided to the farmers through?

• (1) Training and Visit system
• (2) Agricultural Technology Information Centre
• (3) Krishi Vigyan Kendra
• (4) District Rural Development Agency

Answer

75. The following Employment Oriented Programme for people implemented in India in different years:
1. Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY)
2. Swanjayanti Gram स्वरोजगार Yojana (SGSY)
3. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA)
4. Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana (PMRY)
The correct chronological order of these programmes according to year of initiation is

• (1) 4,2,3 and 1
• (2) 2,4, 3 and 1
• (3) 1, 3,2 and 4
• (4) 1, 4, 2 and 3

Answer

76. Which of the following is not a style of Leadership according to classification given by “White”?

• (1) Autocratic
• (2) Democratic
• (3) Professional
• (4) Laissez-faire

Answer

77.Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

• (1) Leagans Model of Communication- 5elements
• (2) Berlo Model of Communication- 6elements
• (3) Aristotle Model of Communication-3elements
• (4) Rogers & Shoemaker Model – 5elements of Communication

Answer

78. Development of Plan of Work is a part of?

• (1) Programme Planning
• (2) Programme Implementation
• (3) Programme Monitoring
• (4) Programme Evaluation

Answer

79.Which of the following are elements of diffusion process?
1. Communication channels
2. Innovation
3. Persuation
4. Overtime

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:

• (1) 1,2 and 3
• (2) 2, 3 and 4
• (3) 1,2 and 4
• (4) 1,3 and 4

Answer

80. Which of the following is One dimensional diagram?

• (1) Pie-chart
• (2) Bar diagram
• (3) Histogram
• (4) Cylinder

Answer

81. The correct relationship between Arithmetic Mean (A.M.), Geometric Mean (G.M.) and Harmonic Mean(H.M.) is?

• (1) A.M. =G.M.= H.M.
• (2) G.M. ≥A.M.≥ H.M.
• (3) H.M. ≥ G.M. ≥ A.M.
• (4) A.M. ≥ G.M. ≥ H.M.

Answer

• 82. The mean of 11 numbers is 7. If one of the numbers, 13 is deleted, at will be the mean of remaining 10 numbers?
• (1) 7.7
• (3) 6.0
• (2) 6.4
• (4) 5.8

Answer

 

 

 

• (1) 3
• (2) 4
  (3) 5
  (4) 50

Answer

84. Which of the following statements is?

• (1) Mode is the best m measure of central tendency.
• (2) Median is not affected by extreme values
• (3) Arithmetic mean is not affected by extreme values
• (4) Geometric mean can be computed even if one of the values of given data is negative

Answer

85. Consider the following statements?
1. If 10 is added to each entry on a list, then the average increase by 10.

2. If 10 is added to each entry on a list, then the standard deviation increase by 10.

3. If each entry on a list is doubled,then the average doubles.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

• (1) 1, 2 and 3
• (2) 1 and 2 only
• (3) 1 and 3 only
• (4) 2 and 3 only

Answer

86. Mean deviation is minimum when deviation is taken from?

• (1) Arithmetic mean
• (2) Median
• (3) Mode
• (4) Weighted mean

Answer

87. Which of the following statements is true ?

• (1) Standard deviation is square of variance.
• (2) Variance is not independent of change of origin of the data.
• (3) Measure of relative dispersion is coefficient of variation.
• (4) covariance is measured between more than two variables.

Answer

88.Following data are given?
Covariance between X and Y -5
Variance of X=4
Variance of Y=9
The value of efficient of correlation between X and Y will be closest to?

• (1) 0.75
• (2) 0.90
• (3) 0.60
• (4) 0.80

Answer

89. In which one of the following cases,would you expect to get a negative correlation?

• (1) The age of husbands and wives.
• (2) Shoe size and marks obtained in Statistics.
• (3) Insurance Companies profit and the number of claims they have to pay.
• (4) Amount of rainfall and yield of crop

Answer

90. The loose smut disease of wheat spreads through?

• (1) Soil borne 
• (2) Air borne
• (3) Internally seed borne
• (4) Externally seed borne

Answer

Assistant Agriculture Officer (AAO) Paper 2018 Rajasthan

91. Colletotrichum spp. causes which disease in fruit plants?

• (1) Blight
• (2) Scab
• (3) Root rot
• (4) Anthracnose

Answer

92. Blight of Cumin is caused by?

• (1) Alternaria alternata
• (2) Alternaria tennis
• (3) Alternaria burnsii
• (4) Xanthomonas campestris

Answer

93. The Great Irish Famine (1845-46) was due to?

• (1) Early blight of potato
• (2) Brown rot of potato
• (3) Late blight of potato
• (4) Rice blast

Answer

94.Which of the following is cyst forming nematode infesting potato?

• (1) Globodera rostochiensis
• (2) Capnodium ramosum
• (3) Podosphaera leucotricha
• (4) Macrophomina phaseoli

Answer

95.The major disease of groundnut is?

• (1) Early and late leaf spot disease
• (2) Canker disease
• (3) Root knot disease
• (4) Stem gall disease

Answer

96.Cut worm, Agrotis ipsilon is the pest of which crop?

• (1) Gram
• (2) Castor
• (3) Sugarcane
• (4) Pomegranate

Answer

97.Which of the following pests of sorghum?
and maize belongs to order “Diptera

• (1) Rhopalosiphum maidis
• (2) Atherigona varioso
• (3) Chilo partellus
• (4) Sesamia inferens

Answer

98. Which of the following is egg-parasitoid recommended for the control of stem borer n crops?

• (1) NPV
• (2) Bacillus thrunigi
• (3) Trichogramma japonica
• (4) Mentrrahizium anisopliae

Answer

99. Which is notorious pest of chickpea causing heavy damage?

• (1) Helicoverpa armigera
• (2)Carpomyia versuviana
• (3) Meridarchis scyrodes
• (4) Leucinodes orbonalis

Answer

100. Phenyl pyrazole is present in which insecticide ?

• (1) Fipronil
• (2) Imidocloprid
• (3) Dimethoate
• (4) Malathion

Answer

101. Diamond back moth attacks is found in which crops?

• (1) Wheat
• (2) Barley
• (3) Crucifers
• (4) Gram

Answer

102. The……. is a chart or map on which distribution of selected meteorological elements over a large area, at specified instant of time is represented?

• (1) Geographical chart
• (2) Climate chart
• (3) Weather chart
• (4) Synoptic chart

Answer

103. The erosion of soil particles between 0.1 to 0.5 mm diameter by wind is termed as?

• (1) Saltation
• (2) Suspension
• (3) Surfac creep
• (4) Interruption

Answer

104. While classifying plant adaptation to drought, which of these is not denoted as ‘drought avoidance’ mechanism?

• (1) Early stomatal closer
• (2) Thick cuticle
• (3) Reduced leaf area
• (4) High root: top ratio

Answer

105. The seed rate (kg/ha) of multigerm varieties of sugarbeet is about?

• (1) 10
• (3) 20
• (2) 15
• (4) 25

Answer

106. The ratio between the quantity of water stored in the root zone and the water delivered to the plot is termed as?

• (1) Water distribution efficiency
• (2) Water storage efficier
• (3) Water application efficiency
• (4) Project efficiency

Answer

107. A drainage canal discharges 0.3 cubic meters of water per second and drains 250 hectare area. What is the drainage coefficient of this land ?

• (1) 0.04 cm
• (2) 1.04 cm
• (3) 2.04 cm
• (4) 3.04 cm

Answer

108. The variety ICPL 87 (Pragati) of pigeon-pea was released from?

• (1) GBPUAT, Pantnagar
• (2) CCSHAU, Hisar
• (3) TNAU, Coimbatore
• (4) ICRISAT, Hyderabad

Answer

109. Which of these is an automated method of surface irrigation?

• (1) Cablegation
• (2) Surge irrigation
• (3) Corrugation
• (4) Level basin

Answer

111. Which of the following is not a composite of maize?

• (1) Ageti 76
• (2) Prabhat
• (3) Navjot
• (4) Sartaj

Answer

112. Which one of these nutrient elements is absorbed by fruiting zone of groundnut?

• (1) Nitrogen
• (2) Iron
• (3) Calcium
• (4) Zinc

Answer

113 Which is calculated in units of yield increase per unit of nutrient applied?

• (1) Apparent nutrient recovery
• (2) Production efficiency
• (3) Agronomic efficiency
• (4) Physiological efficiency

Answer

114. What is the tag colour on the bag of foundation seed ?

• (1) Golden yellow
• (2) Blue
• (3) Green
• (4) White

Answer

115. The component herbicides of the herbicide mixture ‘Odyssey’ used to control weeds in soyabean are?

• (1) Imazethapyr & Pendimethalin
• (2) Imazethapyr & Imazamox
• (3) Imazethapyr & quizalafop
• (4) Imazethapyr & alachlor

Answer

116. If the grain yield of barley is 3000 kg/ha average ET was 30 cm, the water use cfficiency (kg/m3) of barley would be?

• (1) 100
• (2) 10
• (3) 1
• (4) 0.1

Answer

117. A character determined by many genes and does not show discrete variation is known as?

• (1) Qualitative character
• (2) Threshold character
• (3) Quantitative character
• (4) Multiple-allelic character

Answer

118. If two plants differing for 4 allelic pairs are hybridized, the smallest perfect population in F2 will be?

• (1) 16
• (3) 64
• (2) 48
• (4) 256

Answer

119. Grow-out test is conducted to determine?

• (1) Moisture content
• (2) nunation
• (3) Seed vigour
• (4) Genetic purity

Answer

120. The hybrids developed by Govern Agencies or Government institutions and Agricultural Universities are called?

• (1) Private hybrids
• (2) Institutional hybrids
• (3) Public hybrids
• (4) Government hybrids

Answer

Assistant Agriculture Officer (AAO) Paper 2018 Rajasthan

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